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Re: Non-Literal Interpretation of Genesis, how do you explain genealogies? - May 24th 2015, 03:02 AM

Originally Posted by Dan11 View Post
You propose a brilliant argument, you really are an awesome speaker! In Matthew Ch:1 it lists the descendants and does not mention Adam yet Jesus mentions Adam when he talks about how Adam doomed mankind and Jesus came to save it. It's an interesting topic I believe it is meant to be taken literally but its interesting to think about
This is true, and so does Paul. But, my argument would be that in Genesis 1-3 the word Adam in the ancient text literally means mankind. It isn't used as a singular noun for the name of a person until chapter 4 (I'm not just saying this, it's actually true). Nonetheless, we get a genealogy of Adam in chapter 4 as a literal person. Therefore, I'd say that Adam could very well be responsible for sin, but this does not mean he was the first person, rather just the first to sin.